Posted by 1minionsopinion on December 16, 2009
Everyone probably knows C.S. Lewis dabbled with atheism (at least doubted his faith enough to think he was) for a while before getting further into Christian writing. I found this quote via Natalie Asplund (which makes it sound like we’re friends, heh):
“I believe in Christianity as I believe that the sun has risen: not only because I see it, but because by it I see everything else.”
— C.S. Lewis
I could say much the same thing and mean it. Why? Because the sun doesn’t rise; the earth rotates. I believe in Christianity as much as I believe the sun rises.
She also includes this quote by the same man:
“Atheism turns out to be too simple. If the whole universe has no meaning, we should never have found out that it has no meaning…”
Actually, I have no idea what this means. I don’t particularly mind if the universe has no meaning. Why does it need one? Why is it necessary to think we’re special in any kind of way? Why is it necessary to think the whole universe exists so we can see it by the light of God’s balls of flaming gas?
Okay, I find that very funny. I have to remember I wrote that.
From Secular Humanism (breaks added):
If it is true that Lewis at one time considered himself an atheist, his ignorance of the subject is a glaring indictment of atheism’s failure to educate even its own adherents about the true merits of our position. For instance, in Lewis’s The Case for Christianity, he makes this ludicrous statement: “When I was an Atheist, I had to persuade myself that the whole human race was pretty good fools until about one hundred years ago.”
Perhaps C.S. Lewis, the naïve naive but skeptical student, could labor under the fantasy that there had been no unbelievers until the nineteenth century, but how could the mature, academician Lewis, expert on the subject of religious philosophy, fail to recognize the history of non-belief, which probably stretches back as far as religion itself?
Whom other than atheists did Lewis suppose his Bible was referring to in Psalms 14:1: “The fool hath said in his heart there is no God?” And did he not consider the possibly chilling effect such pronouncements may have had upon expressions along these lines? Did he not draw any conclusion from the fact that the Christian predilection for murdering anyone critical of their faith waned at about the same time he recognizes the appearance of atheism?